
Any measurement of a true quantity \(\tau^*\) will contain some error
We write the measured value as \(\tau_i = \tau^* + \epsilon_i\)
Classical measurement error has three properties:
Under these conditions, averaging works:
\[\text{Avg}(\tau_i) = \frac{1}{N}\sum_i \tau_i = \tau^* + \underbrace{\text{Avg}(\epsilon_i)}_{\to\, 0} \xrightarrow{N \to \infty} \tau^*\]
I will toss a book in the air. Time how long it stays in the air (seconds, to 2 decimal places) and enter your measurement in the spreadsheet.
Classical measurement error assumes errors are mean-zero — but what if they are not?
Systematic bias: the average error is not zero, \(E[\epsilon_i] = b \neq 0\)
Example: when timing the book-toss, students may be systematically slow to hit stop — over-estimating time in the air on average
This is a constant bias — it shifts every measurement by the same amount
The good news: if the bias does not depend on what you are measuring, it can still be harmless for many purposes
Specifically, if the bias is the same across all groups being compared, it cancels in the comparison — as we will now show
\[\tau_i = D_i \tau^R + (1-D_i)\tau^L + b + \epsilon_i\]
Rearranging step by step:
\[\tau_i = D_i \tau^R + \tau^L - D_i \tau^L + b + \epsilon_i\]
\[\tau_i = \underbrace{\tau^L + b}_{\alpha} + \underbrace{(\tau^R - \tau^L)}_{\beta}\, D_i + \epsilon_i\]
The regression coefficient \(\beta\) still estimates the true difference between right and left-handed tosses
The bias is absorbed entirely into the intercept \(\alpha\)
Intuition: if you make the same mistake measuring both groups, the mistake cancels when you take the difference
The data from round 1 (right-hand toss) is still in the spreadsheet. Now open the sheet and add a left-hand toss only — record the time and mark which hand.
Starting from:
\[\tau_i = D_i(\tau^R + b^R) + (1-D_i)(\tau^L + b^L) + \epsilon_i\]
Expanding:
\[\tau_i = D_i(\tau^R + b^R) + (\tau^L + b^L) - D_i(\tau^L + b^L) + \epsilon_i\]
\[\tau_i = \underbrace{(\tau^L + b^L)}_{\alpha} + \underbrace{[(\tau^R - \tau^L) + (b^R - b^L)]}_{\beta}\, D_i + \epsilon_i\]
We cannot separate the true difference from the bias difference — they are bundled into a single number \(\hat\beta\)
A finding of \(\hat\beta = 1\) second is consistent with any of:
Sometimes context or logic lets us put reasonable bounds on the biases — but not in general
Lesson: measurement error that is correlated with your explanatory variable destroys inference — you cannot recover the true relationship
So far the error has been in the outcome \(\tau_i\). What if the error is in the explanatory variable?
True model: \(y_i = \alpha + \beta x^*_i + \epsilon_i\), but we observe \(x_i = x^*_i + u_i\)
Assume classical \(u_i\): mean-zero, uncorrelated with \(x^*_i\) and \(\epsilon_i\)
Recall \(\hat\beta = \text{Cov}(x_i, y_i) / \text{Var}(x_i)\). Substituting:
\[\text{Cov}(x_i, y_i) = \text{Cov}(x^*_i + u_i,\; \beta x^*_i + \epsilon_i) = \beta\,\text{Var}(x^*_i)\]
\[\text{Var}(x_i) = \text{Var}(x^*_i) + \text{Var}(u_i)\]
Therefore:
\[\hat\beta = \beta \cdot \frac{\text{Var}(x^*_i)}{\text{Var}(x^*_i) + \text{Var}(u_i)}\]
\[\hat\beta = \beta \cdot \underbrace{\frac{\text{Var}(x^*_i)}{\text{Var}(x^*_i) + \text{Var}(u_i)}}_{\text{between 0 and 1}}\]
The fraction is always between 0 and 1: attenuation bias — \(\hat\beta\) is pushed toward zero
The larger the noise variance \(\text{Var}(u_i)\) relative to the signal, the closer \(\hat\beta\) gets to zero
A constant error (zero variance) causes no bias — it is only variation in the error that attenuates
You will often see scholars argue: “even if there is measurement error, it just makes us under-estimate the relationship” — this is true only for classical error
If error in \(x\) is non-classical, the bias is unknown in sign and magnitude
Moreover: ME in \(x\) corrupts estimates of all other coefficients in a multiple regression, even if their own regressors are perfectly measured
Nunn and Qian (2011) ask: did the introduction of the potato to Europe after 1700 drive population growth?
The potato originated in South America; it spread through Europe unevenly, largely determined by soil and climate suitability
This suitability is plausibly unrelated to other determinants of population growth — which makes it a useful source of variation
Simplified regression:
\[y_{it} = \beta \cdot \text{PotatoSuitable}_i \times \mathbf{1}[\text{After 1700}]_t + \alpha_i + \tau_t + \epsilon_{it}\]
\(y_{it}\): log population; \(\alpha_i\): region fixed effects; \(\tau_t\): period fixed effects
\(\beta\) captures the extra population growth after 1700 in regions more suitable for potatoes
Population data come from McEvedy & Jones (MJ), Atlas of World Population History
MJ describe their construction process openly. Key features per Guinnane (2023)
To use MJ for sub-national regions, researchers allocate population by land area share — a further step not in MJ
Question for discussion: given how this data was constructed, what would you expect the measurement error to look like? Is it likely to be classical?